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Posted by erdeky at Aug 1, 2011 2:42:22 PM
Inflection Point
Does f(x) = abs((x-1)(x+1))-2 have inflection points at (-1,-2) and (1,-2)?

Posted by pskinner at Aug 2, 2011 8:36:18 AM
rose   Re: Inflection Point
 
Does f(x) = abs((x-1)(x+1))-2 have inflection points at (-1,-2) and (1,-2)?


Good question!

It depends on the definition of "inflection point." Most definitions require that the second derivative exist at the point, so on that basis, the points are not inflection points despite the fact that there is a change in concavity. Some authors might not require the second derivative to exist there, so by their definition it would be an inflection point. Check your textbook to see the answer "they" want.
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Principal Skinner